Epidemiology: The Basic Science of Public Health course is offered  by “Coursera”. In this post you will get The Basic Science of Public Health Quiz Answer | 100% Correct Answer

 

Epidemiology: The Basic Science of Public Health

Offered By ”The University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill”

4.6 stars (3,177 ratings)

Instructor: Dr. Karin Yeatts +1 more instructor

 

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Week- 1

Module 1 Quiz

 

1. Which one of the following is the definition of epidemiology focused on in this course?

 

  • The study of the distribution of health outcomes, risk factors and exposures in people
  • The study of the distribution of health outcomes, risk factors and exposures in populations
  • The study of the distribution of health outcomes, risk factors and exposures in individuals
  • The study of the distribution of health outcomes, risk factors and exposures in communities

2. Which of the following are part of epidemiology? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • Provision of health care to people with diseases
  • The study of the factors that determine whether someone gets a particular health outcome
  • The study of the distribution of health outcomes, risk factors and exposures in populations
  • The study of the natural history of health outcomes

3. Which of the following were driving factors in the past history of epidemiology? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • The desire to find other explanations for witchcraft
  • The desire to increase the standard of living
  • The desire to understand frightening natural phenomena
  • The desire to provide better occupational conditions

4. The epidemiologic transition of Hunter-gatherer to cities is related to which event?

 

  • Resurgence of infectious diseases
  • From few epidemics to major epidemics
  • From major epidemics to endemic disease
  • From a focus on occupational health to environmental health
  • From infectious to non-infectious diseases
  • From a focus on individual health to population health

5. Which of the following is the best definition of an epidemiologic transition to fill in the blank?

An epidemiologic transition_____.

 

  • Describes changing patterns of population age distributions, mortality, fertility, life expectancy, and causes of death
  • Describes a transition from high mortality to lower mortality
  • Refers to a change in how epidemiologists are trained
  • Describes changing patterns of individual age distributions, mortality, fertility, life expectancy, and causes of death

6. Which of the following is the best description of the second epidemiologic transition from major epidemics to endemic disease?

 

  • A transition from high mortality to lower mortality
  • A period when newly emerging diseases appeared frequently
  • A period when human immune systems adapted and changed
  • An increase in zoonotic disease and increased encounters with disease vectors
  • A transition from chronic disease to more infectious disease

7. What was John Snow’s major contribution to the field of Epidemiology?

 

  • Did an experiment with fresh fruit
  • Contributed work during the cholera epidemic of 1854
  • Wrote about “disease seeds”
  • Showed the first occupational link to cancer
  • Developed the “poor laws”
  • Characterized births by parish and sex
  • Greek physician who was interested in rational rather than supernatural explanations for diseases
  • Father of modern vital statistics
  • One of the first demographers
  • Studied the effects of snowy environments on health

8. Which of the following are true about the cholera epidemic of 1854? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • This cholera epidemic affected people throughout Europe
  • A water pump in London was implicated as being the source of the epidemic
  • Sir Edwin Chadwick contributed to discovering the cause of this epidemic
  • John Snow contributed to discovering the cause of this epidemic
  • Approximately 600 people died by the end of this epidemic

9. Fill in the blank. Epidemiology ____________?

 

  • Is all of the above
  • Is the basic science of public health
  • Asks who, what, when, where, why and how regarding health and disease
  • Studies health and disease on a population level

10. True or False: The season can be a good epidemiologic measure of time.

 

  • False
  • True

11. Which of the following is NOT an epidemiologic measure of person?

 

  • education level
  • living conditions
  • genetic factors
  • physical location
  • diet

12. True or False: Qualitative data deals with narrative descriptions and quantitative data deals with measurements.

 

  • True
  • False

 

 

Week- 2

Module 2 Quiz

 

 

1. What is the primary difference between risk and prevalence?

 

  • Risk describes the number of diseased persons present in the population divided by the number of persons in the population during a specified time period, whereas prevalence describes the number of newly diseased person present in the population in a specified time period divided by the number of at- risk persons in the population.
  • Prevalence describes the number of diseased person present in the population in a specified time period whereas risk describes the number of people who die from the disease in the population in a specified time period.
  • Prevalence describes the number of diseased persons present in the population divided by the number of persons in the population in a specified time period, whereas risk describes the number of newly diseased person present in the population divided by the number of at-risk persons in the population in a specified time period.

2. Which of the following types of events can be measured by a risk and/or a rate?

 

  • Recurrence of a disease
  • Development of a drug or treatment side effect
  • All of the above
  • Newly developed cases of disease

3. True or false: The term “incidence” is used to refer to prevalence, risks and rates.

 

  • True
  • False

4. True or False: The formula for a rate is the number of existing cases of the disease outcome divided by the number of people studied, with a mention of the time period under observation.

 

  • False
  • True

5. True or False: The denominator of a risk is not fixed by the “at-risk” population size at the beginning of a study observation period.

 

  • True
  • False

6. In order to calculate a risk, which of the following steps must be taken? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • define a case definition for the health outcome under study
  • determine the number of new cases of the outcome under study
  • define the at-risk study population
  • determine how many people in the study were exposed or unexposed to the exposure under study
  • determine the number of males and females in the study

7. The denominator of a rate is affected by which of the following? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • loss to follow-up
  • births
  • deaths
  • migration
  • study drop-outs

8. Which of the following are advantages of using a rate measure? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • good for health outcomes or diseases that are of long duration
  • suitable for a dynamic population
  • good for health outcomes or diseases with long latent periods
  • flexibility
  • can accommodate repeated events that affect the same study participant

9. Which of the following measure(s) is/are able to capture the reality of a dynamic population? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • prevalence
  • odds
  • risk
  • rate

10. If you are studying the rate of leukemia, which of the following events would affect a participant’s person-time? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • death
  • participant goes out of town for a weekend
  • participant decides to no longer participate in the study
  • loss to follow-up
  • being sick with influenza

11. If you are studying the rate of breast cancer, which of the following events would affect a participant’s person-time? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • loss to follow-up
  • participant decides to no longer participate in the study
  • death
  • patient undergoes a double mastectomy
  • diagnosis with uterine cancer

12. If you are studying the rate of relapse for lung cancer after treatment, which of the following events would affect a participant’s person-time? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • time of initial diagnosis with lung cancer
  • time period(s) the patient is in remission from lung cancer
  • participant decides to no longer participate in the study
  • time period(s) when the patient is considered to have active lung cancer

13. Once the study population has been defined, the denominator of a risk is affected by which of the following? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • who is at risk of developing the health outcome
  • loss to follow-up
  • births
  • migration
  • deaths

14. Which of the following are acceptable ways to express “person-time”? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • person-months
  • person-days
  • person-years
  • person-minutes

15. Which of the following measures is sometimes used because of its convenient mathematical properties?

  • rate
  • odds
  • risk
  • prevalence

 

 

Week- 3

Module 3 Quiz

 

1. True or False: It is always ethical to randomly have the investigator assign exposures to study participants in experimental studies.

 

  • False
  • True

2. Which of the following studies is best described in this statement: “A study where the effectiveness of 2 different diabetes drugs are compared.”

 

  • cohort study
  • randomized controlled trial
  • cross-over clinical trial
  • intervention study
  • case-control study

3. Which of the following studies is best described in this statement: “A study where the participants receive one drug for heart disease and then later receive a different drug for heart disease.”

 

  • cross-over clinical trial
  • cohort study
  • randomized controlled trial
  • case-control study
  • intervention study

4. Which of the following best relates to equipoise?

 

  • use of a sham treatment that appears identical to the real treatment but lacks the treatment’s active agent
  • an uncertainty about the benefits/harms of the possible treatments or exposures
  • analysis of subjects according to their randomized treatment, regardless of whether they actually got or took the treatment
  • whether or not participants follow the treatment recommendations of the study

5. A cohort may be defined based on which of the following? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • gender
  • race
  • geography
  • age
  • behavioral characteristics

6. Which of the following are disadvantages of cohort studies? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • loss to follow-up
  • expensive
  • time-consuming to conduct
  • inefficient for rare outcomes
  • good for studying single outcomes only

7. True or False: The denominator for a measure of occurrence in a cohort study is always person-time since the study participants are followed through time.

 

  • True
  • False

8. The study population in a cohort study can be which of the following? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • closed
  • open
  • dynamic (changing over time)
  • very large

9. Subjects are selected into case-control studies based on their:

 

  • health outcome and exposure status
  • health outcome or disease status
  • exposure status

10. True or False: In a case-control study it is possible to sample on exposure status.

 

  • True
  • False

11. Prostate cancer occurs mainly in older men. About 6 cases in 10 are diagnosed in men aged 65 or older, and it is rare before age 40. The average age at the time of diagnosis is about 67. (Source)

A case control study is conducted to determine the effect of fish oil consumption on prostate cancer in the state of Colorado. Which of the following would be an appropriate source population for this study?

 

  • The entire population of Colorado.
  • The entire population of men in Colorado.
  • The entire population of men in Colorado over the age of 50.

12. True or False: Hospital controls would be a good choice of control group to accurately represent the source population of prostate cancer cases for a study of the effect of fish oil consumption and prostate cancer.

 

  • True
  • False

13. Which of the following study designs is sometimes referred to as a “snapshot in time”?

 

  • Cross-sectional study
  • Intervention study
  • Time to treat study
  • Cohort study
  • Case-control study

14. Which of the following measures of occurrence are used for cross-sectional studies? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • Risk
  • Time
  • Rate
  • Odds
  • Prevalence

15. Which of the following are ways in which cross-sectional studies can be used / conducted? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • Characterize data on prevalence of an exposure as well as a health outcome
  • Study a population at a point in time
  • Study a population over a defined period of time
  • Only characterize the prevalence of a health outcome

16. Which of the following are possible uses of cross-sectional study results? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • Evaluate the proportion of a population with the health outcome or risk factor of interest
  • Help with planning or administering preventative or health care services
  • Evaluate the risk of a population with the health outcome or risk factor of interest
  • Help with developing surveillance programs
  • Study a chronic health outcome lacking information on time of onset.

17. Aggregate level data provide information on which of the following? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • The average exposure of the group, but not of individuals
  • The ability to link exposures and other risk factors to those who became diseased and those who did not
  • The health outcome rate of the group, but we don’t know exposures of individuals who became diseased and those who did not
  • Exposures of each person

18. True or False: The ecological fallacy is when you conclude that an association between exposure and the health outcome at individual level is true at group level when this may not be true.

 

  • False
  • True

19. Which of the following conclusions to explain the hypothetical statement that “Air pollution is higher in New York City than in Washington D.C., but mortality from lung disease is lower in New York City than in Washington D.C.” would be an example of ecologic fallacy?

 

  • Air pollution protects against lung disease deaths
  • New York City may provide better treatment for lung disease than Washington D.C.
  • Persons dying of lung disease in Washington D.C. may have moved from high air pollution cities
  • People in New York City may have better health insurance than people in Washington D.C.

20. Which of the following are advantages of ecologic studies? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • Help conservationists understand ecological principles
  • Convenience
  • Low cost
  • Useful for evaluating impact of community-level interventions
  • Individual-level data on exposure and health outcomes are often publicly available in state and national data bases

 

 

Week- 4

Module 4 Quiz

 

1. Interpret the meaning of one study’s reported odds ratio of 1.6 (95% CI 1.1, 3.4) for the association between high level of fish oil consumption and prostate cancer.

 

  • Cases are more likely than controls to have a high level of consumption of fish oil, but it is not statistically significant.
  • There is no association between fish oil intake and prostate cancer.
  • Cases are statistically significantly more likely than controls to have a high level of consumption of fish oil.
  • Fish oil is protective against prostate cancer.

2. Interpret the meaning of an odds ratio of 1.00 for the association between consumption of fish oil and prostate cancer.

 

  • Cases are more likely than controls to have a high level of consumption of fish oil.
  • Fish oil is protective against prostate cancer.
  • There is no association between fish oil intake and prostate cancer.

3. True or false: both a prevalence ratio and a prevalence difference are considered measures of occurrence.

 

  • True
  • False

4. True or false: both a risk ratio and a risk difference are considered measures of disease occurrence.

 

  • False
  • True

5. True or false: The term “relative risk” is the most precise term to use when discussing measures of association.

 

  • False
  • True

6. True or false: The term “relative risk” is sometimes used to refer to any of the ratio measures of association.

 

  • True
  • False

7. Which of the following are ratio measures used in epidemiology? (You must choose all that apply to receive credit for this question; no partial credit will be awarded.)

 

  • rate ratio
  • odds ratio
  • risk ratio
  • prevalence ratio
  • occurrence ratio

8. True or false: It is best to use a difference measure when trying to understand the cause or etiology of a health outcome or disease.

 

  • True
  • False

9. True or false: When a ratio measure is less than 1 it means the prevalence, risk or rate in the exposed is greater than in the unexposed group.

 

  • True
  • False

10. True or false: When a ratio measure is greater than 1 it means the prevalence, risk or rate in the exposed is greater than in the unexposed group.

 

  • True
  • False

11. Which of the following is true about a ratio measure that equals 1.0?

 

  • there is an inverse association between the exposure and the health outcome
  • there is a direct association between the exposure and the health outcome
  • there is no association between the exposure and the health outcome
  • there is a small association between the exposure and the health outcome

12. Which of the following is true about a ratio measure is greater than 1.0?

 

  • there is a possible causal association between the exposure and the health outcome
  • there is no association between the exposure and the health outcome
  • there is a large association between the exposure and the health outcome
  • there is an inverse association between the exposure and the health outcome

13. Which of the following is true about a ratio measure that is less than 1.0?

 

  • there is a possible protective association between the exposure and the health outcome
  • there is no association between the exposure and the health outcome
  • there is a large association between the exposure and the health outcome
  • there is a positive association between the exposure and the health outcome

14. True or false: A ratio measure of association expresses the prevalence, risk or rate among exposed in excess of that among the unexposed or less-exposed.

 

  • True
  • False

15. True or false: A difference measure treats the prevalence, risk or rate of the health outcome among the unexposed group as a “background” prevalence, risk or rate.

 

  • False
  • True

16. Which of the following is true about a difference measure that is less than 0?

 

  • there is a large association between the exposure and the health outcome
  • there is no association between the exposure and the health outcome
  • there is a positive association between the exposure and the health outcome
  • there is a possible protective association between the exposure and the health outcome

17. True or false: The null value used when interpreting a difference measure is 0.

 

  • True
  • False

18. Interpret the meaning of one study’s reported rate ratio of 0.5 (95% CI 0.2, 0.9) for the association between high level of Vitamin D consumption and breast cancer incidence.

 

  • High Vitamin D consumption is associated with an increased breast cancer rate.
  • There is no association between high Vitamin D consumption and breast cancer rates.
  • Those who consume a high level of Vitamin D are less likely than those who consume little or Vitamin D, to have a high rate of breast cancer incidence, but it is not statistically significant.
  • Those who consume a high level of Vitamin D are statistically significantly less likely than those who consume low or no Vitamin D, to have a high rate of breast cancer incidence.

 

 

Week- 5

Module 5 Quiz

 

1.
Question 1
True or False: There are nearly always some genetic and some environmental causes in every causal mechanism.

1 point

  • True
  • False

2.
Question 2
True or False: If an exposure proceeds a health outcome and is strongly associated with that health outcome, we can then say that without a doubt that the observed association is causal.

1 point

  • True
  • False

3.
Question 3
True or False: Causal relationships provide interesting information to epidemiologists but are rarely used to make public health decisions and design interventions.

1 point

  • False
  • True

4.
Question 4
A spurious association may be due to which of the following?

1 point

  • insufficient control of confounders
  • bias
  • all of the above answers are correct
  • use of the wrong statistical methods

5.
Question 5
The 9 factors used as a guideline for determining causality are referred to as:

1 point

  • Bradford-Hill criteria
  • Rothman’s causal pies
  • Directed acyclic graphs
  • Koch’s postulates

6.
Question 6
True or False: The Bradford-Hill criteria were originally developed to answer the question of whether cigarettes cause disease, especially lung cancer.

1 point

  • False
  • True

7.
Question 7
True or False: The Bradford-Hill criteria were originally developed to answer the question of whether bacteria caused tuberculosis.

1 point

  • True
  • False

8.
Question 8
True or False: Failing to meet one or more of the 9 Bradford-Hill criteria means that the studied relationship should not be considered causal.

1 point

  • False
  • True

9.
Question 9
True or False: The 9 Bradford-Hill criteria should be used as a checklist to determine if a causal relationship exists.

1 point

  • False
  • True

10.
Question 10
The 9 Bradford-Hill criteria should be used as a guideline to consider if a causal relationship exists.

1 point

  • True
  • False

11.
Question 11
The statement “a number of studies by different investigators at various times using different methods in different populations show similar results” best refers to which of the following?

1 point

  • biological gradient
  • plausibility
  • specificity
  • consistency

12.
Question 12
Which of the following is generally considered the weakest guideline?

1 point

  • consistency
  • biological gradient
  • specificity
  • plausibility

13.
Question 13
The statement “exposure to factor of interest precedes the outcome” best refers to which of the following?

1 point

  • consistency
  • temporality
  • specificity
  • plausibility
  • biological gradient

14.
Question 14
Which of the following is generally considered to be the strongest or most important guideline?

1 point

  • biological gradient
  • plausibility
  • temporality
  • consistency
  • specificity

15.
Question 15
The statement “there is a threshold effect” best refers to which of the following?

1 point

  • temporality
  • biological gradient
  • consistency
  • plausibility
  • specificity

16.
Question 16
True or False: Some diseases or health outcomes do not display a dose-response relationship with a causal exposure.

1 point

  • True
  • False

17.
Question 17
The statement “the biologic mechanism is known” best refers to which of the following?

1 point

  • plausibility
  • biological gradient
  • specificity
  • consistency
  • temporality

18.
Question 18
The statement “the results fit with other knowledge” best refers to which of the following?

1 point

  • specificity
  • temporality
  • coherence
  • biological gradient
  • plausibility

19.
Question 19
Which of the following study designs is the most persuasive in establishing causality?

1 point

  • cohort studies
  • ecologic studies
  • randomized controlled trials
  • case-control studies

 

 

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